What does ${x|x = 7} = emptyset$ mean? (Probability)

To my understanding ${x|x = 7} = emptyset$ means that the number seven is a not allowed value. But I do not understand the meaning of “$x|x$”. Can anybody please explain ${x|x = 7} = emptyset$ more in detail.

It’s from an introduction book into probability theory. It says:” … Not possible events are for example ${x|x = 7} = emptyset$ , ${x|x = 0} = emptyset$ , …”. Basis is the Throwing Dice example as e. g. also available on the page http://www.mathsisfun.com/data/probability.html

What are hot research topics for PhD dissertation in Biostatistics?

I’ve been thinking of choosing research topics for PhD dissertation in Biostatistics. I wish to know some hot research topics in recent years. As far as I know, some hot research topics are:

  1. High-dimensional data analysis;
  2. causal-inference in experiments and observational studies;
  3. propensity score matching;
  4. Bayesian statistics.
  5. Time series;
  6. Model selection;
  7. Survival data analysis;

My questions are:

  1. Are there any good literature reviews that summarize recent research trends in Biostatistics?
  2. What are must-read review papers for these topics?

One of many (singular or plural)? [on hold]

What is correct way to structure following sentence?

  • It will be fixed in one of future releases.

  • It will be fixed in one of future release.

In this scenario, there will be many releases (software release) in future but I don’t know in which release problem will be fixed.

A side question, what is the name of such sentence/structure in English?

Usage of care: can I say that “I care about how the news paper wrote about me”?

Can I say that “I care about how the news paper wrote about me”

I am sure about the usage that I care about my family.
It implies that I love my family, I am emotionally attached with them, and they are important to me.

However, can I say that ” I care about the news paper wrote about me “?
I ask because I am not implying that I LOVE the news paper, but it is true that how they wrote about me is important to me, and I am emotionally attached to what it says.
More precisely, I will be happy if it says something good about me, and vice versa.
PS: is EMOTIONALLY ATTACHED describes correctly the situation?

“On the one hand side”

At my (large, multinational, Germany-headquartered) employer, I frequently hear “on the one hand side… on the other hand side” by non-native speakers. This always sets my teeth on edge. However, I have heard it often enough coming from many different people that I’m getting unsure of my intuition. Then again, it could just be incorrect usage spreading from non-native speaker to non-native speaker.

Is “on the one hand side” accepted usage, or is my hunch correct that it isn’t?

This question is related.

Why is Greece not called in English by the name Hellas?

The Greeks call their country Hellas and themselves Hellenes.

The names Greece and Greek are of Roman origin and were adopted from Latin Graecus into old High German as Crêch and then in all Germanic languages the name was fashioned after the Latin – Old English Grécas. (See OED extract below)

It has been the policy of the international community for many years to name new countries, (and rename old ones), to correspond with the way they are known to their own government and population. Thus Abyssinia became Ethiopia, the Gold Coast became Ghana, Rhodesia became (after partition) Zambia and Zimbabwe. (For a more complete list of name changes go to http://www.conservapedia.com/Renamed_countries.)

Since there may be some evidence that it was only colonists (presumably from Rome to Euboea) that assigned the name Greece, why do we continue to use that name and why not Hellas? After all we no longer refer to the USA as The thirteen colonies.

Forms: pl.OE Cré(a)cas, Gré(a)cas, ME Greckes, Orm. Grickess, ME
Greks, Grekis, ME Grekys… (Show More) Etymology: In branch I: The
Old English Crécas plural, corresponds to Old High German Chrêch ,
Chriech (Middle High German Kriech ), Gothic Krêks < *Krêko-z , an
early Germanic adoption of Latin Graecus , plural Graecī (see below),
the name applied by the Romans to the people called by themselves
Ἕλληνες . The substitution of k for g is commonly accounted for by the
supposition that the Germanic initial g , when the word was adopted,
still retained its original pronunciation /ɣ/ , so that k would be the
Germanic sound nearest to the Latin g . In all the Germanic languages
the word was ultimately refashioned after Latin, with change of k into
g ; hence Old English Grécas plural beside Crécas , Middle Dutch
Grieke (Dutch Griek ), modern German Grieche , Old Norse Grikkir ,
plural. In branch II the noun is an absolute use of Greek adj. The
Latin Graecī is < Greek Γραικοί, said by Aristotle ( Meteor. i. xiv)
to have been the prehistoric name of the Hellenes in their original
seats in Epirus. The word is apparently an adjectival derivative of
Graius, which is used in Latin as a poetical synonym of Graecus.
Recent scholars think the name may have been brought to Italy by
colonists from Euboea, where there is some evidence of its having
existed: see Busolt Gr. Gesch. I.2 198. (Show Less) I.

Past participle form of “exit”?

What’s the past participle form of the word exit? Is it exit (irregular, like set)? exited? exitted? On one page I found exited but if that’s the case why isn’t it exitted (double t) like with the word emitemitted? Is there a rule when the consonant at the end is doubled and when not?

Is 'arrogant' a masculine word?

I was trying to think of a word to describe a female acquaintance and came up with arrogant, but immediately wanted to discard this as the word itself felt masculine to me.

I later settled on deluded (which for this individual is more appropriate) but I was wondering whether there was a solid reason for my opinion. I would be keen to know if there is anything aside from perhaps my connotations of the people I would describe as arrogant, the pig-headed co-workers or stereotypical jocks who, from personal experience at least, are predominantly male.

I appreciate this may be erring on the side of opinion, but to be clear I am asking specifically if there is any objective reason, perhaps the origin of the word or some such. According to the Online Etymology Dictionary it derives from the Latin arrogare, but found nothing gender-specific, and have rarely come across people using it day-to-day to describe women.